1. Which of the following laws was the first attempt by the United
States government to require the safety of drug products?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
B. Pure Food and Drug Act
C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment
D. Modified Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
2. Which of the following drugs under development is most likely to qualify
for "fast track" special
consideration?
A. A drug to treat acne
B. A drug to treat cancer
C. A drug to treat high blood pressure
D. A drug to treat the common cold
3. What is the consequence if the FDA classifies an OTC ingredient in
category III?
A. The ingredient must be immediately removed from all OTC products.
B. The ingredient can remain in OTC products until a final decision is made
regarding its status.
C. The ingredient is found to be safe and effective and can be included in
OTC products.
D. The ingredient can only be available as a prescription drug.
Questions 4 and 5 are based on the following scenario:
"Physicians at a drug
company want to test the hypothesis that a new compound, Relieven, eliminates
inflammation of the joints in patients suffering from arthritis. The physicians
recruited a small number of patients with arthritis to receive daily administrations
of various doses of Relieven or placebo in order to test the efficacy of
Relieven. Neither the physicians nor the subjects themselves knew which
patients received Relieven. Two weeks after initiating treatment, all study
subjects were tested to determine if the inflammation had be eliminated."
4. An individual participating in the Relieven study described above has
likely been recruited for which phase of human testing?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
5. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Relieven likely qualifies for special consideration under the
"orphan drug act."
B. The physicians would commit a "type II" error if they conclude
that Relieven was ineffective even though it was effective.
C. An independent variable in this study was the dose at which Relieven was
administered.
D. Prior to conducting this study, the company must have obtained an
investigational new drug designation for Relieven.
6. Which of the following best
explains why generic drugs are less expensive than proprietary drugs?
A. Generic brands contain smaller quantities of active ingredient than
proprietary brands.
B. Generic brands are often made by companies that did not invest money in
the development of the drug.
C. Compared to proprietary brands, generic brands are of inferior quality.
D. Generic brands are less expensive to distribute than proprietary brands.
7. Select the incorrect statement:
A. An individual does not need special FDA approval in order to post drug
information on the internet.
B. Information in the Physician's Desk Reference is written by drug
companies.
C. All other factors being equal, a drug with a therapeutic index of 10 is
preferred over a drug with a therapeutic index of 100.
D. Foods can sometimes interact with medicines and cause life-threatening
side effects.
8. Using acetaminophen while using aspirin can provide pain relief equal to
the sum of each drug effect alone. This is an example of which of the following
types of drug interactions?
A. Antagonistic
B. Additive
C. Infra-additive
D. Synergistic
9. You discover when treating a headache that 4 or 5 tablets of aspirin do
not relieve the pain any more than 3 tablets. What is the term used to describe
this phenomenon?
A. Threshold effect
B. Plateau effect
C. Therapeutic range
D. Lag phase
10. Which of the following is a parenteral form of administration?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Rectal
D. Topical
11. If you were developing a new antidepressant for use in humans, what kind
of molecule do you most likely want to
develop?
A. A large, fat-soluble molecule
B. A small, fat-soluble molecule
C. A large, water-soluble molecule
D. A small, water-soluble molecule
12. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Most drug metabolism occurs in the liver.
B. Placebo influences can both increase and decrease drug responses.
C. The effectiveness of a drug is inversely proportional to the distance
between the drug's target site and the site of administration.
D. The placental barrier prevents all drugs from passing between the fetal
and maternal circulation.
13. Which system is not associated
with regulating heart rate?
A. Central nervous system
B. Autonomic nervous system
C. Somatic nervous system
D. Peripheral nervous system
14. Which of the following is likely to
be caused by administering phenylephrine?
A. Opened nasal passages
B. Drowsiness
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Vasodilation
15. Which of the following is not a
benzodiazepine?
A. Xanax
B. Seconal
C. Halcion
D. Valium
16. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Some people abuse drugs because they are self-medicating a psychiatric
disorder.
B. Psychiatric disorders are likely caused by an imbalance in
neurotransmitters.
C. Use of amphetamine can improve the symptoms of naturally occurring
schizophrenia.
D. Problems with processing sensory information by the brain can cause
mental illness.
17. Which of the following would be considered a positive symptom of
schizophrenia?
A. A lack of communication
B. Paranoia
C. Tremor
D. Hypertension
18. Which of the following is most likely used to treat neurosis?
A. Anxiolyic
B. Anorexiant
C. Antipsychotic
D. Alpha-blocker
19. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Drug abuse is the self-administration of drugs in a manner that is
unacceptable to society or the medical community.
B. Many drug abusers are self-medicating psychiatric disorders.
C. All drugs of abuse are reinforcing because they cause the release of the
neurotransmitter, acetylcholine.
D. Many young people experiment with the drugs of abuse, but never become
addicted.
20. A new drug has recently been approved by the FDA for the treatment of
depression. This drug has the same abuse potential as cocaine. It is likely to
be classified in which of the following Schedules?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
21. Which of the following hallucinogens is related to the amphetamines?
A. LSD
B. mescaline
C. psilocybin
D. MDMA (ecstasy)
22. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Stimulants of abuse increase activity of the sympathetic nervous system.
B. Many individuals engaged in violent criminal activity have been using a
stimulant of abuse.
C. The stimulants of abuse do not cause significant dependence.
D. The stimulants of abuse can increase endurance.
23. Select the incorrect statement
concerning alcohol (ethanol):
A. It can interact with other drugs by influencing their metabolism.
B. It does not cross the placental barrier.
C. It interacts synergistically with other CNS depressants.
D. Most users never become severely dependent.
24. Select the incorrect statement concerning LSD:
A. It is derived from a cactus plant.
B. It is usually taken orally.
C. It tends to increase the activity of the heart.
D. It tends to cause little dependence.
25. Which of the following has not been proposed as a clinical use for
marijuana?
A. Antiemetic
B. Anorexiant
C. Reduce ocular (eye) pressure associated with glaucoma
D. Decrease seizure episodes
26. Endorphins are natural neurotransmitters in the brain that directly
activate which of the following receptor types?
A. dopamine receptors
B. opioid receptors
C. cannabinoid receptors
D. cholinergic receptors
27. What is the most effective way to treat a type I diabetic?
A. increase sugar intake
B. take oral hypoglycemic drugs
C. use acarbose
D. inject insulin
28. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Low density lipoproteins are the major cholesterol carriers in the blood.
B. High density lipoproteins tend to carry cholesterol away from artery
walls
C. A ratio of total cholesterol to high density lipoprotein cholesterol of
4:1 is considered less desirable than a ratio of 10:1.
D. Low density lipoproteins can contribute to the formation of plaques on
artery walls.
29. Fats that have at least one place that hydrogen can be added to the
molecule are referred to as:
A. Hydrogenated
B. Unsaturated
C. Saturated
D. Soluble
30. Which of the following classes of drugs is most likely to increase blood pressure?
A. Sympathomimetics
B. Alpha-blockers
C. Diuretics
D. Beta-blockers
31. Digitalis is most likely to be
prescribed for a person who is suffering from:
A. Hypertension
B. Heart failure
C. Angina
D. Heart ischemia
32. A new sedative drug has been found to be effective in treating sleep
disorders in pregnant women. After exhaustive studies in humans, there is no
evidence that this drug, when used during pregnancy, damages the fetus. This
drug is likely to receive which of the following FDA classifications?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. X
33. Antibiotics are most likely to
be effective in the treatment of which of the following:
A. Common colds
B. Bacterial skin infection
C. Athlete's foot
D. Viral pneumonia
34. Select the incorrect statement :
A. The use of antibiotics has contributed significantly to the increase in
life expectancy that has occurred in the U.S. over the past century.
B. Antibiotic therapy should stop if symptoms of infection subside even if
treatment has not been completed.
C. No systemic antibiotic is available OTC in this country.
D. Antibiotics are misused more often than other prescription drugs.
35. Which of the following antibiotics is bactericidal and broad spectrum?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
36. Which of the following anorexiant drugs was removed from the market by
the FDA?
A. Prozac
B. fenfluramine
C. phentermine
D. Meridia
37. Select the incorrect statement
concerning the skin:
A. It contains approximately 1/3 of the total body blood circulation.
B. It is an important excretory (excretion) organ.
C. Apocrine glands are important for temperature regulation.
D. Sebaceous glands are often associated with hair follicles.
38. Which of the following surface acting drugs is water impermeable?
A. emollients
B. astringents
C. demulcents
D. keratolytics
39. Select the incorrect statement
concerning treatment of acne.
A. Accutane should only be used for moderate to severe acne.
B. Alcohol wipes can be used to remove sebum from the surface of the skin.
C. OTC topical acne medications often contain benzoyl peroxide.
D. Topical vitamin A ointments are effective due to their antibiotic action.
40. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Significant digestion of food occurs in the esophagus.
B. The stomach helps digestion by secreting digestive enzymes and acid.
C. The nutrients are absorbed into the body from the small intestine.
D. Water absorption occurs in the large intestine.
41. Select the incorrect statement:
A. Diarrhea is the result of too much water in the stools.
B. Constipation occurs because material passes through the G.I. tract too
fast.
C. Ulcers can occur if there is excessive secretion of digestive enzymes in
the stomach.
D. If materials pass through the G.I. tract too fast, malnutrition may
occur.
42. Which of the following antacids is most likely to cause serious metabolic problems if used in
excess?
A. calcium carbonate
B. sodium bicarbonate
C. magnesium salts
D. aluminum salts
43. Select the incorrect statement:
A. The nonproductive cough should not be treated with antitussives.
B. Productive coughs help to clean the respiratory passages.
C. OTC expectorants have not been proven to be effective in improving the
productivity of coughing.
D. Increased consumption of liquids helps to make coughing more productive.
44. Which of the following will most rapidly open congested nasal passages?
A. Systemic phenylephrine
B. Systemic pheniramine
C. Topical phenylephrine
D. Topical pheniramine
45. Which of the following is an antihistamine often used in cold and allergy medications?
A. Phenylpropanolamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Guaifenesin
D. Noradrenaline